• OprahsedCreature@lemmy.ml
      ·
      1 year ago

      But then we get into questions of intent and deaths/time. British definitely had more time and I'm pretty sure they had more deaths, though I don't know the exact numbers. It seems British intent fluctuated based on timeframe and region

      • roastpotatothief@lemmy.ml
        ·
        1 year ago

        This seems like the right approach. You can get different answers depending on which measure you use

        You could compare

        1.Willful killings in total

        1. willful killings per year

        2. willful killings during the 1920s-40s

        3. willful killings during Churchill's regime versus Hitler's regime.

        I guess the UK will have higher numbers by every measure except 1. The figures should be easy to find.

    • EnsignRedshirt [he/him]
      ·
      1 year ago

      Yeah, it depends on the criteria. The Nazis were only around for a few years, whereas the British did their thing for centuries. The Nazis were a rookie prodigy who retired after a single red-hot season, the British were a multi-season MVP with way more points on the board.

      • Dudewitbow@lemmy.ml
        ·
        1 year ago

        I think the other part is as Colonials, the British ultimately have given their colonies back, and most.of the colonies are in a reletively decent condition, especially when you conpare it to french colonies for example, like Haiti, which went into perpetual debt, and many west African nations which are relevant today due to the uprising.