The decline in sperm counts is a growing concern worldwide, with rates plummeting by as much as 52% since the 1970s. This alarming trend has far-reaching implications for human health and reproduction, raising questions about the future of fertility and the potential consequences for individuals, families, and society as a whole.
Wasn’t this a result of a change in measurement technique, and these articles are just comparing the two datasets as if they’re direct equivalents? I remember seeing an explainer about this like a year ago.
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https://www.nature.com/articles/s41585-022-00626-w
17 August 2022 - Spatiotemporal trends in human semen quality