• HumanPenguin@feddit.uk
    ·
    8 months ago

    As I understand it. The clause is based on as a % of the income from the crown estates.

    And as all income from the estates has been given to the government since Charles III. In exchange for the sovereign grant. With the fact that that grant is used to maintain the palaces.

    It not being below 12% of the money earned from the land. Is hardly an onerous rule.

    How many other land owning corperations pay a maximum of 88% tax and survive. Would be very different if the government was expected to fund maintainance from the non grant part.