For reference: Article 48 Wikipedia I’m trying to understand how anyone with any knowledge of the history of dictators could possibly justify granting a president unchecked “official” power so if anyone has any actual theories I am ALL ears.

  • BmeBenji@lemm.ee
    hexagon
    ·
    6 months ago

    There is absolutely precedent for these exact events. Pick the name of a famous dictator from history out of a hat and they most likely have acquired absolute power through “legal” means.

    • Bitrot@lemmy.sdf.org
      ·
      edit-2
      6 months ago

      What legal precedent is there in US courts for deciding if something is official or personal?