cross-posted from: https://lemmy.crimedad.work/post/12162
Why? Because apparently they need some more incentive to keep units occupied. Also, even though a property might be vacant, there's still imputed rental income there. Its owner is just receiving it in the form of enjoying the unit for himself instead of receiving an actual rent check from a tenant. That imputed rent ought to be taxed like any other income.
The rental value would be $0.
Contrary to lemmy.world logic, 0% of 0 is 0
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They aren't making any income on rent. So what % would an income tax have to be to be >0$ exactly?
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They make 0$, so how is it an "income" tax
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It's taxed upon selling, for the value of the house, which would tax exactly what you're talking about.
Trying to act like I'm not understanding makes you sound "childish" my dude. Grow tf up and READ. INCOME TAX ON ZERO DOLLARS IS ZERO DOLLARS
Edit: This dude's banner is a 9/11 photo. Nice.. I'm arguing with a literal troglodyte over the semantics of a dumb article title.
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You are 100% part of the problem for hexbear's negative view from outsiders.
Tax the rich's 0$ monthly rents! That'll show um.