As we suppose that no change whatever has taken place either in the productive powers of labour, or in the amount of capital and labour employed, or in the value of the money wherein the values of products are estimated, but only a change in the rate of wages, how could that rise of wages affect the prices of commodities? Only by affecting the actual proportion between the demand for, and the supply of these commodities.
Well, no, it’s a factor but. LTV and all that. Which still doesn’t mean higher wages means higher prices, I think.
LTV isn't about price.
yeah no i guess i didn't think it did, was sort of worried you were taking the supply/demand narrative at face value but i'm dumb
Marx on the relationship between wages and prices
https://www.marxists.org/archive/marx/works/1865/value-price-profit/
Makes sense