Towards the more historically literate among us, is there any ussr archive or primary source proof that Stalin personally dictated,pushed or had the major hand in the recriminalization of homosexuality (the re-institution of the sodomy laws) in the USSR?
Like I don't doubt that he was a homophobe and more socially conservative than Lenin and he probably has written about bourgeois decendance and such but the issue of the recriminalization of homosexuality is almost exclusively talked about as the dictator Stalin deciding to persecute homosexuality.
But we know, even the CIA knew, that the party had collective leadership and decision making with decisions and votes often going against Stalins position. That there were serious democratic system in place for the drafting and changes in laws (the process behind the drafting of the Constitution around that time) and there was decentralization in the handling of many issues among the republics
So since sadly and regretably , the vast majority of party and population was deeply homophobic in the 1920s and 30s and, as far as I understand, the decriminalization of homosexuality only came due to the abolition of all tsarist laws and wasn't a targeted political or demcentralist process, why does almost everyone assume the recriminalization was due to Stalin deciding so and pushing for it?
Couldn't it be a natural legal regression that reflected where the vast majority of the party and population was at the time . Also i read somewhat that a bunch of SSRs already had recriminalized it on their own by that point
Towards the more historically literate among us, is there any ussr archive or primary source proof that Stalin personally dictated,pushed or had the major hand in the recriminalization of homosexuality (the re-institution of the sodomy laws) in the USSR?
Like I don't doubt that he was a homophobe and more socially conservative than Lenin and he probably has written about bourgeois decendance and such but the issue of the recriminalization of homosexuality is almost exclusively talked about as the dictator Stalin deciding to persecute homosexuality.
But we know, even the CIA knew, that the party had collective leadership and decision making with decisions and votes often going against Stalins position. That there were serious democratic system in place for the drafting and changes in laws (the process behind the drafting of the Constitution around that time) and there was decentralization in the handling of many issues among the republics
So since sadly and regretably , the vast majority of party and population was deeply homophobic in the 1920s and 30s and, as far as I understand, the decriminalization of homosexuality only came due to the abolition of all tsarist laws and wasn't a targeted political or demcentralist process, why does almost everyone assume the recriminalization was due to Stalin deciding so and pushing for it?
Couldn't it be a natural legal regression that reflected where the vast majority of the party and population was at the time . Also i read somewhat that a bunch of SSRs already had recriminalized it on their own by that point