Can anyone explain this to me? The article states:
Apple has 65 percent market share in the U.S. smartphone market and 70 percent in the ‘performance’ category, but a designation of monopoly power typically requires a company to have a higher share of the market.
Is a monopoly not considered as >50%? There are other points made in the article of course but specifically this one doesn’t make sense to me.
Can anyone explain this to me? The article states: Apple has 65 percent market share in the U.S. smartphone market and 70 percent in the ‘performance’ category, but a designation of monopoly power typically requires a company to have a higher share of the market. Is a monopoly not considered as >50%? There are other points made in the article of course but specifically this one doesn’t make sense to me.
It's explained in the next sentence:
So they're arguing that they're not a monopoly outside of the US
I did see that - I was just confused by the second part of the sentence I highlighted. Odd semantics, maybe