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Can anyone explain this to me? The article states: Apple has 65 percent market share in the U.S. smartphone market and 70 percent in the ‘performance’ category, but a designation of monopoly power typically requires a company to have a higher share of the market. Is a monopoly not considered as >50%? There are other points made in the article of course but specifically this one doesn’t make sense to me.
It's explained in the next sentence:
Apple has argued that it should be judged based on its global market share, which is at 20 percent.
So they're arguing that they're not a monopoly outside of the US
I did see that - I was just confused by the second part of the sentence I highlighted. Odd semantics, maybe
