Makes literally no sense on any level, even if there were a coronavirus pandemic that long ago people were so migratory that there's significant overlap between European and East Asian populations from that era even if they generally split 40 ish thousand years ago. I can believe there'd be markers of repeated coronavirus pandemics in one population, but see no reason for the immunity of a novel coronavirus to be significantly different from other Eurasian populations. Like variola family viruses such as smallpox spread all over Eurasia for thousands of years (though smallpox itself is relatively recent), as did coronaviruses. Wait for peer review on that paper.
EDIT: okay I checked the paper a bit and a guy in the replies of that tweet is right, their confidence intervals are crazy. And nowhere in the paper did it say a causal relationship was established between what they’re measuring here and modern day Covid-19 resistance.
Makes literally no sense on any level, even if there were a coronavirus pandemic that long ago people were so migratory that there's significant overlap between European and East Asian populations from that era even if they generally split 40 ish thousand years ago. I can believe there'd be markers of repeated coronavirus pandemics in one population, but see no reason for the immunity of a novel coronavirus to be significantly different from other Eurasian populations. Like variola family viruses such as smallpox spread all over Eurasia for thousands of years (though smallpox itself is relatively recent), as did coronaviruses. Wait for peer review on that paper.
EDIT: okay I checked the paper a bit and a guy in the replies of that tweet is right, their confidence intervals are crazy. And nowhere in the paper did it say a causal relationship was established between what they’re measuring here and modern day Covid-19 resistance.