Looking for info to disprove this stigma, I don't really have much other than one academic research paper I found but I don't think if the guy I'm arguing with would be willing to sit through and read that. He dismissed it as queer theory which he says has been "debunked" idk what the hell queer theory is. Anyway from what I can tell with this dude the simple and more obvious the better but it must also be backed by peer reviewed research
I started the argument and made the claim that this association is bullshit because I once heard him say something along the lines of "homosexuals are more likely to be pedophiles"
Maybe this seems like semantics, but bringing someone's previous claim up is not exactly the same as making your own claim. "X is bullshit" and "I have not seen any convincing evidence of X" mean the same thing.