• huf [he/him]
      ·
      4 months ago

      it's dumb because it's done wrong. indoeuropean cases are just stupid as fuck.

      look at how it works in hungarian or finnish, those are sensible systems.

      • Egon [they/them]
        ·
        4 months ago

        Isn't Finnish the language with 38 verb tenses or something mad like that?

        • GenderIsOpSec [she/her]
          ·
          edit-2
          4 months ago

          Järjestelmällistyttämättömyydelläänsäkäänköhän

          Translation

          the unsystematic nature of the system

          Järjestelmä is system everything else is added on top of that

        • huf [he/him]
          ·
          4 months ago

          more like 15-20 i think, but yeah. but they're far more regular and behave more like prepositions do in english.

          the worst part of IE cases isnt that there's so many of them (there arent, the most ever is like 8-9 and that's in ancient languages i think), it's that each little case marker means a multitude of things at once. see above how it ending in -i means it's one of multiple possibilities, and each time that lone little -i is marking both case and number together.

          so for the above Dative example, hungarian would have (contrived, yes, i know):

          Odaadta a lovat a Brutusznak - He/She gave the horse to Brutus. Odaadta a lovat a Brutuszoknak - He/She gave the horse to the Brutuses.

          the -nak signifies the dative (more or less). the -(o)k is the plural. so a plural in dative is -oknak. it's not some third thing, it's just a concatenation of the individual suffixes marking number, case, etc.

    • PolandIsAStateOfMind@lemmygrad.ml
      ·
      edit-2
      4 months ago

      Polish languange have half of its grammar rules ripped straight from Latin and surprisingly it works better than in Latin. Horror to learn for foreigners though, or so i heard.

      • huf [he/him]
        ·
        4 months ago

        it's not ripped from latin, latin and polish share ancestors and the cases were inherited into both from that ancestor.

        • PolandIsAStateOfMind@lemmygrad.ml
          ·
          edit-2
          4 months ago

          Yes both are indoeuropean languages though the distance to that common ground is far, but the grammar was ripped since Latin was mandatory for the educated class in the entire X-XIX centuries, included especially the period when Polish language was first used widely in writing.

          • huf [he/him]
            ·
            4 months ago

            i have no doubt latin influenced polish, even its grammar, but i very much doubt the cases of latin were transplanted into polish.