If you define wage labor as just working for a wage, then yes
A critical element of wage labor is that workers are paid in wages.
Um yes?
If what you are being paid is not determined by the market, it is not a wage, and you are not doing wage labor.
Do you think there isn't a market deciding prices? Do you think it makes any difference if a business nominally belongs to the state? I've never heard anyone argue that working at the public sector isn't wage labour, ever. And what you said is not the defining feature of wage labour. The defining feature of wage labour is that you sell your capacity to work.
Why do you think the numbers are wrong?
Because I noticed other countries that I know about and the numbers were silly. For China in particular they offer a bunch of completely different estimates and enormous fluctuations that don't make sense. For instance they have a source from the Business Insider which gives it at 50% and another which gives it at around 30% (although that is from some years ago). I think it has to do with whether or not they count mixed owned enterprises as public? I don't know but something weird is going on with these figures.
Stop. Go read wage labor and capital if you want to talk about this. Because I’ve described wage labor from marxist definitions.
Yes, I have read it, and it doesn't follow from anything in there that public sector workers aren't doing wage labour.
Their surplus labor value is not being stolen from them.
How? Do you think in order for exploitation to happen a business has to be private? That's not at all true.
Profit is reinvested for the common good.
If there is profit there is wage labour and exploitation. It may be better than privately owned enterprises for a number of reasons but it is still very much wage labour.
Um
You know that public sector employees are doing wage labour right?
(Also idk how this is calculated, but these stats are mostly wrong and not just for China. Perhaps it is the way they are counted? )
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Um yes?
Do you think there isn't a market deciding prices? Do you think it makes any difference if a business nominally belongs to the state? I've never heard anyone argue that working at the public sector isn't wage labour, ever. And what you said is not the defining feature of wage labour. The defining feature of wage labour is that you sell your capacity to work.
Because I noticed other countries that I know about and the numbers were silly. For China in particular they offer a bunch of completely different estimates and enormous fluctuations that don't make sense. For instance they have a source from the Business Insider which gives it at 50% and another which gives it at around 30% (although that is from some years ago). I think it has to do with whether or not they count mixed owned enterprises as public? I don't know but something weird is going on with these figures.
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Yes, I have read it, and it doesn't follow from anything in there that public sector workers aren't doing wage labour.
How? Do you think in order for exploitation to happen a business has to be private? That's not at all true.
If there is profit there is wage labour and exploitation. It may be better than privately owned enterprises for a number of reasons but it is still very much wage labour.
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But they do, they do have wage labour, this is not at all at odds with Leninism.