We've all heard of the Bechdel test. I know it's not a cure-all to sexism and hidden patriarchy, but it is a good question to ask as a writer.
For those who don't know, the original "Bechdel test" posited that 99% of movies don't have two female characters talking to each other about something other than a male. Basically that women in fiction usually exists just to further the plot of male characters.
My novel is first person PoV of a middle school boy and he's part of a trio with two other teenage girls (these are the main 3 characters). But because he is the only PoV, it can never pass "the Bechdel test." Otherwise, I think I've made the other two main characters fairly fleshed out characters.
I was referring to hypothetical books chosen from a broad cross-section of authors. Like, if the ten best-selling books don't pass the test, then it's time for concern.
The test is intended more as a thought exercise than as a hard rule. It goes to show how limited our perspective of women in fiction is, if we can't portray them as existing independent of male interests more often than not. But if someone defends a problematic book on the grounds that it passes the Bechdel test, that isn't really much of a defence either.
I was being cheeky. That is a most rational understanding of the Bechdel test than how reddit can present it.
Ah, I wasn't sure. Pardon me if I sounded condescending, but if the internet has taught me anything it's that standards of irony meter calibration vary widely.