• DiltoGeggins [none/use name]
    hexagon
    ·
    1 year ago

    Thanks for your response. An apartheid regime can even be found absent the presence of laws designed to restrict the rights of groups of people. This example by Human Rights Watch has a fairly simply (and I think effective) definition that is effective, and law-based: https://www.hrw.org/news/2021/07/19/israeli-apartheid-threshold-crossed#:~:text=International%20criminal%20law%2C%20including%20the,by%20one%20racial%20group%20to

    International criminal law, including the 1973 International Convention on the Suppression and Punishment of the Crime of Apartheid and the 1998 Rome Statute to the International Criminal Court, define apartheid as a crime against humanity consisting of three primary elements: (1) an intent by one racial group to dominate another; (2) systematic oppression by the dominant group over the marginalized group; and (3) particularly grave abuses known as inhumane acts.

    • Assian_Candor [comrade/them]
      ·
      1 year ago

      Using this definition I think you would have a hard time not defining the US as an apartheid regime