Beans were only mentioned twice in the bible, both in the old testament. Once as a gift to David, and once as part of a "bread" cooked over human feces to be eaten to end the siege of Jerusalem.
With the full transcription of the dead sea scrolls, the consensus among modern biblical scholars is that line would be more accurately translated as "Let my lentils leave"
Beans were only mentioned twice in the bible, both in the old testament. Once as a gift to David, and once as part of a "bread" cooked over human feces to be eaten to end the siege of Jerusalem.
What about when Moses told the pharaoh "let my beanis go"?
With the full transcription of the dead sea scrolls, the consensus among modern biblical scholars is that line would be more accurately translated as "Let my lentils leave"
But if the lentils leave, where is the mezuzah supposed to go?