ambientmarxist [none/use name]

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Joined 4 years ago
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Cake day: September 24th, 2020

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  • ambientmarxist [none/use name]tovideos*Permanently Deleted*
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    3 years ago

    No.

    "The Communist Manifesto had, as its object, the proclamation of the inevitable impending dissolution of modern bourgeois property. But in Russia we find, face-to-face with the rapidly flowering capitalist swindle and bourgeois property, just beginning to develop, more than half the land owned in common by the peasants. Now the question is: can the Russian obshchina, though greatly undermined, yet a form of primeval common ownership of land, pass directly to the higher form of Communist common ownership? Or, on the contrary, must it first pass through the same process of dissolution such as constitutes the historical evolution of the West?

    The only answer to that possible today is this: If the Russian Revolution becomes the signal for a proletarian revolution in the West, so that both complement each other, the present Russian common ownership of land may serve as the starting point for a communist development."

    From the 1882 Preface to the Communist Manifesto

    https://www.marxists.org/archive/marx/works/1848/communist-manifesto/preface.htm


  • Saying that the creation of the USSR split labor also seems anachronistic to me. A lot of labor movements were already split by 1917 because there was lots of in fighting over to what degree WW1 should be either supported or opposed. The Australian Labor Party split in 1916, for example.