Permanently Deleted

  • ElGosso [he/him]
    ·
    3 years ago

    Didn't Marx explicitly say that agrarian countries like Russia weren't ready to do a communism?

      • ElGosso [he/him]
        ·
        3 years ago

        Yeah that's the crux of the whole argument being had here

    • LeninsRage [he/him]
      ·
      3 years ago

      Towards the ends of their lives Marx and Engels increasingly moved toward the position that revolution would take hold in the weakest link in the European chain - Russia - as Russia was where Marxism most deeply entrenched itself and was embraced by the left-wing underground.

    • ambientmarxist [none/use name]
      ·
      3 years ago

      No.

      "The Communist Manifesto had, as its object, the proclamation of the inevitable impending dissolution of modern bourgeois property. But in Russia we find, face-to-face with the rapidly flowering capitalist swindle and bourgeois property, just beginning to develop, more than half the land owned in common by the peasants. Now the question is: can the Russian obshchina, though greatly undermined, yet a form of primeval common ownership of land, pass directly to the higher form of Communist common ownership? Or, on the contrary, must it first pass through the same process of dissolution such as constitutes the historical evolution of the West?

      The only answer to that possible today is this: If the Russian Revolution becomes the signal for a proletarian revolution in the West, so that both complement each other, the present Russian common ownership of land may serve as the starting point for a communist development."

      From the 1882 Preface to the Communist Manifesto

      https://www.marxists.org/archive/marx/works/1848/communist-manifesto/preface.htm