an infinite set is countable if there is a one to one mapping between it and the natural numbers. this is easy with the first set as you can literally count off, 1, 2, 3, etc..
the second set is countable in exactly the same way.
this is extremely basic set theory. you're deeply misinformed.
no shit. I'm saying you can't use an enumerable set to produce a mapping with the reals. the natural numbers are an infinite set yet are definitionally countable as they are the ordinals.
disengage, you're arguing nonsense with someone with a literal degree in mathematics.
that's the conceit of the joke, the idea that you can use an enumerated list and map them to the reals. if you could do such a thing, you'd immediately fall prey to Cantor's diagonalization argument. the train tracks are a continuum. they can be mapped to the reals. a neverending list of people cannot.
no, emphatically:
this is extremely basic set theory. you're deeply misinformed.
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no shit. I'm saying you can't use an enumerable set to produce a mapping with the reals. the natural numbers are an infinite set yet are definitionally countable as they are the ordinals.
disengage, you're arguing nonsense with someone with a literal degree in mathematics.
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Respect people's right to disengage
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Respect people’s right to disengage
that's the conceit of the joke, the idea that you can use an enumerated list and map them to the reals. if you could do such a thing, you'd immediately fall prey to Cantor's diagonalization argument. the train tracks are a continuum. they can be mapped to the reals. a neverending list of people cannot.
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i fucking hate maths
mate, I've already asked you to disengage, please do so
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I'm pretty sure it's just a VOOOOTE joke about how there's no difference between the two parties, except aimed at math nerds.