I'm reading How Europe Underdeveloped Africa right now, and Rodney offers that the inherent opportunity for sabotage in more advanced machinery means transitioning beyond a certain stage in development requires "free" workers, that slaves require high degrees of surveillance and are limited to using tools that are hard to destroy.
This is a convincing argument to me for why a transition away from slavery has a material requirement for free workers under capitalism when it comes to factories, but there was still (and is still) a ton of labour that is ultimately performed without advanced machinery, principally agriculture.
I suppose my question is, wouldn't a maximally beneficial set-up for the bourgeoisie have been one in which the cities had free worlers, but the countryside still was allowed slaves to pick oranges etc? (I do know that most agricultural labour has been replaced by complex, easily sabotage-able machinery now, but that was not true in the 19th century)
(and if anyone has any recommended reading on the topic that's appreciated too)
The owning classes didn't abolish slavery, elements of the capitalist class abolished slavery in coalition with the working class and slaves!
I really encourage you to read the first couple chapters of Black Reconstruction. WEB DuBois argues that the Emancipation Proclamation sparked a black general strike as thousands of slaves drew on previous organization to walk off the fields, sabotage plantations and join the union army. After that initial strike, freedmen, including Harriet Tubman, lead raids to free their compatriots.