Link - https://twitter.com/CarlZha/status/1649278580013277184

  • Chapo_is_Red [he/him]
    cake
    ·
    edit-2
    2 years ago

    The simple answer is "no"

    Non-aryan people's existed in India before the Aryans and their culture and lineage contributes to "Indianess". Linguistically, India has many influences. In the south, non-Indo-Aryan languages are predominant.