Permanently Deleted

  • ImperativeMandates [none/use name]
    ·
    edit-2
    4 years ago

    What is the use of fascism for the capitalist (and in terms of Weimar Germany) and aristocratic classes?

    What is it for the petit bourgeoisie?

    If it is about exclusionary nationhood into which the populace transcedence isn't it in direct conflict to the capitalists in the country seeking markets and profits outside its boundaries? As in the manifest is written that in capitalism 'everything that is solid melts into air', so shouldn't the reduced definition you used here clash with that aspect of capitalism?

    To make it short, what is your theoretical framework and in addition which theoretical sources do you draw your fascism theory from?

    • cracksmoke2020 [none/use name]
      arrow-down
      1
      ·
      4 years ago

      The materialist application of fascism is still different than the material conception of neoliberalism.

      Within fascism, elites maintain their primary allegences to their particular nation state. The success of the fascist project will benefit the elites from their own nation at the expense of elites from other nations. Although it's usually petite bourgeois that are most directly engaged in the fascist project.

      Under neoliberalism, elites reject their national identity in the desire to be globally sovergn. Their point of loyalty is to the doctrine of the free market and it's ability to reach all corners of the globe. Elites are totally uninterested in nation building within a neoliberal order and see zero problem selling their country for scraps to the highest bidder.

      These two ideologies are fundimentally in conflict.