this isn't a bad theory, but it's hard to square it with the geography. The Cagots were primarily in Navarre, the Basque Country, and Aragon, as well as Aquitaine, Gascony, and Brittany, but seemingly absent from Andalusia. The article also brings up the possibility they were Vikings or Arabs, but it's just generally hard to square the fact they have no unique language and somehow live in a region/themselves spoke at least four languages from three different families, depending on region. In order for it to be an ethnic migration, you'd expect at least some Cagots somewhere to have preserved a language or dialect, like the Roma or the Irish Travelers do.
In order for it to be an ethnic migration, you’d expect at least some Cagots somewhere to have preserved a language or dialect, like the Roma or the Irish Travelers do.
Right, additionally I don't even know who would be able to invade the area and leave a population demo there but not make it into any history books over it.
Also my original comment was gonna be "They're gypsies, CMV" before I started to work on something more serious.
I do think most likely explanation is they received some kind of social protections (perhaps they were a kind of indirect social protection) while the Moors were in power that were no longer available after Reconquista; this stance subject to change as I look into it further.
this isn't a bad theory, but it's hard to square it with the geography. The Cagots were primarily in Navarre, the Basque Country, and Aragon, as well as Aquitaine, Gascony, and Brittany, but seemingly absent from Andalusia. The article also brings up the possibility they were Vikings or Arabs, but it's just generally hard to square the fact they have no unique language and somehow live in a region/themselves spoke at least four languages from three different families, depending on region. In order for it to be an ethnic migration, you'd expect at least some Cagots somewhere to have preserved a language or dialect, like the Roma or the Irish Travelers do.
Right, additionally I don't even know who would be able to invade the area and leave a population demo there but not make it into any history books over it.
Also my original comment was gonna be "They're gypsies, CMV" before I started to work on something more serious.
I do think most likely explanation is they received some kind of social protections (perhaps they were a kind of indirect social protection) while the Moors were in power that were no longer available after Reconquista; this stance subject to change as I look into it further.