Somehow that assertion doesn't do anything to make a case for moral universals or their objectivity.
It may have been a while but from what I've read I think Marxists also believe the state should be used when the outcome is not subject to being influenced by discourse?
This is just moral nihilism mixed with a liberal conception of the state.
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Somehow that assertion doesn't do anything to make a case for moral universals or their objectivity.
It may have been a while but from what I've read I think Marxists also believe the state should be used when the outcome is not subject to being influenced by discourse?