most historians put the creation of the modern kingdom of Spain in the early XVIII century
Due to the War of Spanish Succession? I've usually seen it dated to the late 15th century, around the unification of Castile and Aragon and the completion of the Reconquista. The latter also corresponds with the beginning of a worldwide Spanish Empire.
We should have a thread sometime about leftist takes on who has legitimate claims to where, and why. It's not just about large states arguing over who owns what enclave, either -- who's to say when a city or region can legitimately break away from a larger state?
Due to the War of Spanish Succession? I've usually seen it dated to the late 15th century, around the unification of Castile and Aragon and the completion of the Reconquista. The latter also corresponds with the beginning of a worldwide Spanish Empire.
We should have a thread sometime about leftist takes on who has legitimate claims to where, and why. It's not just about large states arguing over who owns what enclave, either -- who's to say when a city or region can legitimately break away from a larger state?
If i remember correctly it's due to all the legal stuff Philip V did.
Everywhere should be as autonomous as possible. —the anarchists