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I mean, colonial exploitation often involves a coerced, horribly unequal treaty or "trade agreement".
Equating international treaties with consent is a screamingly bad take but saying "if there's a treaty it can't be colonialism" is also harmful and ignorant.
I mean, if a country has a comprador government, even a democratically elected one, they selling the country cheap agreeing to be colonized doesn't mean the majority of people of a country want to be colonized.
That whole thread is great. Good to see the reddit brain falls apart when posts are made when Americans are asleep.
Idk the British did get the consent of the Indian upper class so it depends how you count it