I'm reading How Europe Underdeveloped Africa right now, and Rodney offers that the inherent opportunity for sabotage in more advanced machinery means transitioning beyond a certain stage in development requires "free" workers, that slaves require high degrees of surveillance and are limited to using tools that are hard to destroy.

This is a convincing argument to me for why a transition away from slavery has a material requirement for free workers under capitalism when it comes to factories, but there was still (and is still) a ton of labour that is ultimately performed without advanced machinery, principally agriculture.

I suppose my question is, wouldn't a maximally beneficial set-up for the bourgeoisie have been one in which the cities had free worlers, but the countryside still was allowed slaves to pick oranges etc? (I do know that most agricultural labour has been replaced by complex, easily sabotage-able machinery now, but that was not true in the 19th century)

(and if anyone has any recommended reading on the topic that's appreciated too)

  • AssortedBiscuits [they/them]
    ·
    2 years ago

    Slavery was abolished because the risk of slave rebellions, including the risk of the slave master's throat being slit and his head impaled on a stake, and cost of suppressing slave rebellions in order to prevent said slave master's head from being separated from his neck, was too great. At the end of the day, the cost/benefit was not in slavery's favor. It's like how "becoming a drug lord selling illegal drugs" isn't a career path most people would choose if the profit margin is extremely high for the commodity.

    You can see this clearly with the way the British empire abolished slavery. There were various slave rebellions, including two Maroon wars where runaway slaves forming autonomous communities outside of British rule in Jamaica fought against their British oppressors. The triumph of the Haitian Revolution, where massa's collective throats were slit and massa's collective heads were impaled onto stakes, struck fear in the slaveowning class. And when Jamaica again had another slave rebellion where one fifth of Jamaica's slaves revolted against their British oppressors, the British empire saw the writing on the wall. After the rebellion was crushed in late 1832, Parliament passed the Slavery Abolition Act of 1833, almost 6 months later.

    As for why the US South stuck with slavery, there's a major demographic difference between Caribbean islands like Haiti and Jamaica and the antebellum South. With this demographic advantage and the settler colony's strategy of self-deputizing settlers as a means of protecting theft of stolen Indigenous land, I believe the slaveowning class simply felt that the risk of slave rebellions was low enough that slavery should continue and with the UK's booming textile industry and their need for cotton, the status quo of slaves toiling in cotton fields can be sustained and a potential Nat Turner or John Brown wouldn't be enough to overthrow slavery.

    • BowlingForDeez [he/him]
      ·
      2 years ago

      Didn't know any of this, have got to read up more about the abolition of the international slave trade and about slave revolts. I'm decently read up on the Haitian revolution, but Jamaica is next.