Obviously its not the exact same but I've met way too many trans people from countries with linguistic gender who hate it to think that there's no relationship at all.
Keep in mind this person was arguing this with the intent that "Spanish doesnt need a gender neutral option for non-binary people from latin america, latino is fine." (also arguing that only "First generation immigrant latinos" care about this and people from her home country of Venezuala do not and find it bizzare, which is just a stupid argument to me like why should that mean that a gender neutral option isn't necessary lol?). She, a binary trans person btw, was arguing that nonbinary latine people shouldn't push for a gender neutral option and that latine is just as much of an imposition as latinx.
This is a term made up by linguists. And they don't even use it much any more because of exactly this misconception. It's mostly called noun class now.
I'm sorry to inform you that it basically is not related to human gender at all. It is a grammatical category, not a semantic one. We call them gender because in the European languages that early linguists were going off of, words either fell in the group that men or women (or neuter) also fell into. And it's true that the words in those categories have "gender" (in the sense that they share that grammatical grouping) the objects they refer to are emphatically not gendered. Case in point: the French word for vagina is in the masculine noun class. Does that mean French speakers view vaginas as a masculine body part? No. It's literally just a grammatical structure.
English speakers have it all fucked up because we only have gender on personal pronouns. Other than pronouns, English words have lost noun classes (and conjugation). For us, the very few words with gender always have a referent that matches that gender. That's an artifact of the streamlining of English morphology. It tells us nothing about how grammatical gender operates in Romance languages.
It really is not and you were right to be corrected
Obviously its not the exact same but I've met way too many trans people from countries with linguistic gender who hate it to think that there's no relationship at all.
Keep in mind this person was arguing this with the intent that "Spanish doesnt need a gender neutral option for non-binary people from latin america, latino is fine." (also arguing that only "First generation immigrant latinos" care about this and people from her home country of Venezuala do not and find it bizzare, which is just a stupid argument to me like why should that mean that a gender neutral option isn't necessary lol?). She, a binary trans person btw, was arguing that nonbinary latine people shouldn't push for a gender neutral option and that latine is just as much of an imposition as latinx.
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This is a term made up by linguists. And they don't even use it much any more because of exactly this misconception. It's mostly called noun class now.
I hope you are joking
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I'm sorry to inform you that it basically is not related to human gender at all. It is a grammatical category, not a semantic one. We call them gender because in the European languages that early linguists were going off of, words either fell in the group that men or women (or neuter) also fell into. And it's true that the words in those categories have "gender" (in the sense that they share that grammatical grouping) the objects they refer to are emphatically not gendered. Case in point: the French word for vagina is in the masculine noun class. Does that mean French speakers view vaginas as a masculine body part? No. It's literally just a grammatical structure.
English speakers have it all fucked up because we only have gender on personal pronouns. Other than pronouns, English words have lost noun classes (and conjugation). For us, the very few words with gender always have a referent that matches that gender. That's an artifact of the streamlining of English morphology. It tells us nothing about how grammatical gender operates in Romance languages.
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