Couldn't that be explained by associative factors though? IE the actual war/poverty that caused the male decrease in the first place?
Like in Russia there was a huge male deficit after WW2 and it seemed to work out pretty good for the next 3 decades.
And in India the northern states which favor male births are far more patriarchal than the southern states which have no sex preference.
Just for the record I'm not saying "male genocide good", just that a genocide administered via war/poverty would have completely different and probably worse effects than a genocide consisting of women consciously choosing to abort male babies.
Couldn't that be explained by associative factors though? IE the actual war/poverty that caused the male decrease in the first place?
Like in Russia there was a huge male deficit after WW2 and it seemed to work out pretty good for the next 3 decades.
And in India the northern states which favor male births are far more patriarchal than the southern states which have no sex preference.
Just for the record I'm not saying "male genocide good", just that a genocide administered via war/poverty would have completely different and probably worse effects than a genocide consisting of women consciously choosing to abort male babies.