I hear this a lot, particularly in arguments from the religious right. I understand that On the Jewish Question is very confusing to read because of how the word "jew" was equated with "usurer" in the 19th century leads to this conclusion - this is often used to discredit all of Marx's work.
Was he, or is this another case of misinterpretation?
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This depends entirely on if they throw it out as something they've heard, but aren't dug in on, or if they throw it out and then argue with you in an attempt to derail the conversation.