No and that wasn't the point either. If I read the post correctly, OP is saying that "innocent before proven guilty" is a standard that only applies to the state. He then mentioned the first amendment as another commonly misinterpreted standard that only applies to the state. You have skipped entirely past the primary point, and latched on to the free speech example for some reason.

EDIT: also I see that OP has already replied to you, so go argue with him instead lol