Is it just me or is this phrasing, with its emphasis on "their own people," only ever leveled against communist states? I never hear it used to refer to, say, the killing of black Americans via slavery or the massacre of German Jews.

  • Trouble [she/her]
    ·
    2 years ago

    I brought this up to someone about slavery. They responded that black slaves weren't the southerner's "own people"

    Which is half true, half obvious deflection, and half the most monstrous thing you could possibly say in that situation

    • culpritus [any]
      ·
      2 years ago

      but those are owned people sweaty, big difference you see

      also, since they were property, the southerns had a self-interest to keep them productive instead of just working them to death like in totalitarian states without private property rights :very-intelligent: