It's only that specific because thats the time period that this specific lawsuit targets, and the law to establish a way to sue foreign governments was only written in the 1980s.
Foreign governments would(under the US interpretation of the law) not be able to be sued for events in the 70s, or 10s-30s either.
Ah so it’s just a weird way of writing that sentence. Got it. Probably should’ve read further.
Real question: Who in their right mind would write the law allowing your citizens to sue foreign governments for fucking them over and NOT have it work retroactively? Typically that’s the kind of law that comes AFTER and issue and you’d need it to be retroactive to fix whatever prompted the law in the first place.
Why the hell would foreign governments not be able to be sued for events in the 40s-60s that seems like a weird rule
It's only that specific because thats the time period that this specific lawsuit targets, and the law to establish a way to sue foreign governments was only written in the 1980s.
Foreign governments would(under the US interpretation of the law) not be able to be sued for events in the 70s, or 10s-30s either.
Ah so it’s just a weird way of writing that sentence. Got it. Probably should’ve read further.
Real question: Who in their right mind would write the law allowing your citizens to sue foreign governments for fucking them over and NOT have it work retroactively? Typically that’s the kind of law that comes AFTER and issue and you’d need it to be retroactive to fix whatever prompted the law in the first place.