• gay [any]
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    1
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    4 years ago

    We have a Royal institution that claims to establish the rules. And it says that "the masculine form can work as gender neutral". So

    Is that correct according to the language?

    no but people don't care and it's actually pronounceable.

    • domhnall [he/him]
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      4 years ago

      Yeah, as I say in my above comment relying to sofodeas:

      Yeah sorry, I didn’t mean to tacitly defer to whatever institution claims to decide what is or isn’t “correct” according to the language. That was a poor word choice. A better way of phrasing my question would have been: is that already a well established convention?

      Part of the reason I ask is that from the first time I encountered it, “latinx” kind of struck me as a silly thing that some white Americans might come up with without realizing that a convention for referring to people in a way that indicated their Latin-American ethnicity while remaining gender neutral already existed. Though I don’t know the history behind the “latinx” convention, so I could easily be dead wrong.