Before that, the British desire for the islands was purely geopolitical posturing.
British sealers were using the island for commercial purposes since at least 1776, and probably earlier. They didn't just set up a garrison and hang out. Britain certainly wasn't posturing any more than any other involved power was.
Spain had the best claim because it was transferred back to them through sale.
At most, this was a claim to part of the island, while the British had a valid claim to another part of the island. The British and French were co-existing in the Falklands before the French port was sold to Spain.
As Argentina was the only remaining nation who had done any development on the island administering it on behalf of Spain
I don't know if the Viceroyalty of Rio de la Plata -- a Spanish colony -- did much administering of the island. Even if we say that there was significant administration (not use) by the Viceroyalty, and even if we want to give Argentina credit for what its predecessor colony did, there's still the matter of Spain totally abandoning the Falklands in 1811, and the matter of Britain having at very least a partial claim to the island from the 1700s.
Britain again only became interested because they saw Argentina moving in to develop the area
But use is the touchstone here, not intentions. And Britain used the island consistently as a port for sealers during the whole time in question, excepting when they had been forced out by Spain.
It was several more decades before they developed it as anything besides corporate holdings. I
It wasn't just a holding, it was being used. Use of the land is what determines a valid claim, right?
The economic pressures on an island requiring external supply to be at all viable is such a coercive force that I don’t think a true claim of self-determination was ultimately possible for that populace.
I completely disagree with writing off claims of self-determination on the grounds that you buy things from elsewhere. I'm not sure it's accurate to say an external supply is "required," anyway -- like most places, they've undoubtedly structured their economy not around self-sufficiency, but around profitability, so what they're currently doing isn't a reflection of what they're capable of.
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British sealers were using the island for commercial purposes since at least 1776, and probably earlier. They didn't just set up a garrison and hang out. Britain certainly wasn't posturing any more than any other involved power was.
At most, this was a claim to part of the island, while the British had a valid claim to another part of the island. The British and French were co-existing in the Falklands before the French port was sold to Spain.
I don't know if the Viceroyalty of Rio de la Plata -- a Spanish colony -- did much administering of the island. Even if we say that there was significant administration (not use) by the Viceroyalty, and even if we want to give Argentina credit for what its predecessor colony did, there's still the matter of Spain totally abandoning the Falklands in 1811, and the matter of Britain having at very least a partial claim to the island from the 1700s.
But use is the touchstone here, not intentions. And Britain used the island consistently as a port for sealers during the whole time in question, excepting when they had been forced out by Spain.
It wasn't just a holding, it was being used. Use of the land is what determines a valid claim, right?
I completely disagree with writing off claims of self-determination on the grounds that you buy things from elsewhere. I'm not sure it's accurate to say an external supply is "required," anyway -- like most places, they've undoubtedly structured their economy not around self-sufficiency, but around profitability, so what they're currently doing isn't a reflection of what they're capable of.