at least other depictions have given him some vague resemblance of being middle eastern, but whoever posted this probably scavenged for the most eurocentric portrayal they could find
at least other depictions have given him some vague resemblance of being middle eastern, but whoever posted this probably scavenged for the most eurocentric portrayal they could find
The Immaculate Conception refers to Mary being conceived without Original Sin, not Jesus.
Although now that I'm reading further I see that Jesus is also alleged to have been born without Original Sin, as per Augustine of Hippo's doctrine on Original Sin. So either my teachers didn't know their shit or my 20 year old memories from childhood are a little rusty.
But complaining about wanting downvotes back? That some :LIB: shit, my comrade.
The whole theological point of the IC is that it's what allowed Jesus to be born without sin. It gave him a perfect vessel.
But how did Mary get born without sin? Why didn't she need a "perfect vessel"? It's turtles all the way down!
Basically, preparing one generation in advance made it better. Or, the only way someone could deserve to be the mother of God is if God made them deserving in the first place.
that's curious eh. I wonder if there are any sources floating around or maybe in the Vatican vaults that go into detail about the origin of Mary's sinless status. and if there is any connection with the Mary Magdalene related conspiracy theories saying she was Jesus's favourite desciple / that they were in love or something. there is legit canonical evidence that jesus didn't ever exclude female disciples whatsoever and now that I think about it how venerated Mary is in Catholicism (there is a special category of prayer to Mary, above the level for the saints but below that for G-d) I got to wonder how did so many Catholic cultures become so patriarchal